KMK Live Session General Pharmacy Practice Test 2026 - Free Pharmacy Practice Questions and Study Guide – All Questions

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Proton pump inhibitors: how they shut down stomach acid productionWhat is the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors?Understanding PRES: which immunosuppressant most commonly triggers posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome and whyWhich medication is the most common medication associated with Reversible Posterior Leukoencephalopathy syndrome (RPLS)?Which diuretic targets the ascending limb of the loop of Henle and how it worksWhich diuretic primarily targets the ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

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Which of the following medications is a benzodiazepine?
Which class of medication increases the risk of hypoglycemia when taken with sulfonylureas due to its ability to mask symptoms?
Which part of the nephron does the diuretic Furosemide primarily target?
Which part of the nephron does hydrochlorothiazide primarily target?
Which medication is a calcineurin inhibitor commonly used in ocular therapy to treat dry eye?
Which diuretic is primarily known for antiandrogen effects?
Which NSAID would you expect to have the least GI side effects?
Metronidazole (MetroGel) is primarily used to treat Acne rosacea. Which option lists Acne rosacea as the correct indication?
Which of the following is an example of a Sulfonylurea?
Which diabetic medication is most associated with macular edema as a potential side effect?
Which class targets DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase/topoisomerase?
Which statement is true about Clonidine's mechanism?
Korsakoff syndrome is an irreversible syndrome related to deficiency of which vitamin?
Which of the following systemic medications is considered a nonspecific alpha and beta adrenergic agonist?
Hydrocortisone is a systemic steroid that is mainly prescribed for the treatment of adrenal insufficiency.
Whorl keratopathy is associated with which medication?
Which of the following is considered a pregnancy-safe class of antibiotics?
Which of the following is a beta-1 selective antagonist?
What is the main MOA of Warfarin (Coumadin)?
Which side effect is most characteristic of ACE inhibitors and not typically seen with ARBs?
What is the primary route of administration when using Ceftriaxone for orbital cellulitis or gonococcal conjunctivitis?
Which of the following is a first-generation H1 blocker?
Which fixed combination antibiotic-steroid product is used in ophthalmology to treat infections?
What migraine medication MOA involves serotonin to achieve its therapeutic effect?
What is the main ocular side effect of Tamsulosin that must be considered prior to cataract surgery?
Spironolactone and Triamterene spare which main ion?
Cephalexin is considered which generation of cephalosporin?
Which topical Anti Herpes Agent has the worst toxic SPK side effect associated with it?
ACE inhibitors target the ACE enzyme which normally converts which molecule to which molecule?
Which of the following is NOT a major topical use for fluoroquinolones in ophthalmology?
Which statement about a TCA overdose is true?
Which ocular history would you be most concerned about when initiating a short-acting beta-2 agonist such as albuterol?
Bromocriptine belongs to which pharmacologic category?
Which ocular condition would you most likely use Bacitracin for?
Which statement best describes the difference between ARBs and ACE inhibitors?
Which BPH medication is most commonly associated with floppy iris syndrome?
Which of the following is an MAOI?
Spironolactone and Triamterene act on which parts of the nephron to conserve potassium?
Rifampin can cause a notable discoloration of bodily fluids. Which option reflects this effect?
Metformin belongs to which drug class?
What is the main mechanism of action of bacitracin?
Which of the following is NOT an MAOI?
Is a side effect of Cocaine miosis or mydriasis?
What is the main mechanism of action of Penicillins?
What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?
Which of the following medications does NOT have anti-inflammatory properties?
Which antibiotic does NOT target the 50S ribosome?
Metformin is primarily used for which type of diabetes?
What is the primary mechanism of action of Rifampin?
All anti-herpes medications share which primary mechanism?
Which antibiotic does NOT target the bacterial cell wall?
Which tetracycline is frequently used for MGD, Acne Rosacea, and Chlamydial infections?
Which ocular side effect poses the greatest risk to vision when taking Chloroquine?
Digoxin is used to treat Congestive Heart Failure. Which of the following is NOT a side effect associated with Digoxin?
Which anticonvulsant has ocular side effects of mydriasis, increased IOP, and cycloplegia?
Which influenza therapy inhibits both influenza A and influenza B?
Dexamethasone, the corticosteroid component in Tobradex, is best described as which type of drug?
What is the main MOA for Phenothiazines such as Chlorpromazine and Thioridazine?
Which of the following is not a cephalosporin?
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with estrogen oral contraceptives?
What is the primary purpose of Zidovudine?
Escitalopram is an example of which antidepressant class?
Which NSAID is considered an "irreversible" Cox inhibitor?
What is the only FDA approved form of Bacitracin?
Tamoxifen is best described as which type of agent used in breast cancer treatment?
Which mediator is inhibited by Corticosteroids but NOT by NSAIDs?
Which of the following is an SNRI medication?
Which of the following medications are NOT considered Dopamine agonists (adrenergic agonists)?
Main use of Oral Pyrimethamine clinically?
Which MAOI is the only one listed on the NBEO matrix?
Which topical immunosuppressant primarily functions by inhibiting T cell activation by inhibiting IL-2?
Which of the following is NOT an ophthalmic indication for the use of a triamcinolone injection?
Which antifungal drug is known to disrupt fungal mitosis by interfering with microtubule formation?
Which topical antiviral is dosed 5 times daily?
Duloxetine is an example of which antidepressant class?
Which of the following is NOT a second-generation fluoroquinolone?
Name three examples of fourth generation fluoroquinolones.
Which drug is a classic example of a 50S ribosome inhibitor?
Which medication is NOT primarily used to treat hyperlipidemia?
Which of the following Non-opiate analgesics is considered a muscle relaxer and is known to have anti cholinergic side effects?
Which drug is an ARB?
Promethazine's chemical structure is most similar to which antipsychotic medication class?
In orbital cellulitis, Ceftriaxone is typically given by which route?
Which of the following is a first-generation H1 blocker?
Which of the following does NOT inhibit the 50S ribosomal subunit?
Which NSAID is a COX-2 selective inhibitor?
Which diuretic is classified as an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure?
Augmentin is a combination of Amoxicillin and which inhibitor?
Which antibiotic would you use for gonococcal conjunctivitis?
Which GI medication is a Proton Pump Inhibitor?
Which antibiotic would you most likely use for eyelid infections or preseptal cellulitis?
The mnemonic PTC is used to remember causes of drug-induced Pseudotumor Cerebri. What does the letter T stand for?
Oral fluoroquinolones can affect attachments to bones, leading to which side effect?
Which systemic medication is NOT known to potentially increase bleeding in the eye?
Which of the following is a corticosteroid rather than an NSAID?
Which of the following is NOT considered a rescue inhaler?
Which NSAID has unique ocular side effects including whorl keratopathy and retinal pigmentary changes?
In discussions of MRSA, the acronym CBVD stands for which phrase?
Which mechanism describes H2 receptor blockers?
Which beta blocker is commonly used in glaucoma due to non-selective beta blockade?
What anti-anxiety medication has anticholinergic properties and is also called Valium?
Which statement accurately describes the dosing schedules for the topical antivirals discussed?
The majority of peptic ulcer disease is caused by which type of gram-negative bacteria?
Which of the following ocular side effects would you MOST expect if a patient is taking Warfarin?
Propranolol is best described as which type of receptor blocker?
Which of the following is NOT one of the major topical uses for fluoroquinolones?
Which of the following agents is NOT used to treat Herpes infections?
Which form of Hepatitis do we not have a current vaccine for?
Topical Trimethoprim is effective against gram (-) and gram (+) bacteria except which gram negative bacteria?
Which statement describes the dosing for Trifluridine and Ganciclovir as topical antivirals?
Bacitracin is commonly used for which type of infections?
Which NSAID is a selective Cox-2 inhibitor?
Which of the following is NOT a known ocular side effect associated with Sildenafil (Viagra)?
Which antifungal drug binds ergosterol and forms pores in fungal membranes?
Which of the following is NOT one of the main ways that patients develop antifungal ulcers?
Which NSAID is most associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
What is the only MAOI medication we are required to know for NBEO?
Which antibiotic class is associated with causing misreading of mRNA due to binding the 30S ribosomal subunit?
Which medication is NOT commonly associated with Steven Johnson Syndrome?
For gonococcal conjunctivitis or orbital cellulitis, which cephalosporin would you most likely use?
Which antibiotic would you be most concerned about using with Warfarin?
Which of the following is considered an osmotic diuretic?
Which medication is more likely to be used to treat hypertension rather than hyperlipidemia?
Elevated AST and ALT levels indicate which organ issue?
Bacitracin (gram +) + Polymyxin B (gram -) yields which medication?
Which of the following is the LEAST likely indication for Doxycycline use clinically?
Bacitracin primarily provides coverage against which type of bacteria?
What is the most severe side effect associated with Trimethoprim/Pyrimethamine?
Which drug is considered an ARB medication?
What is the main MOA for MOST anti fungal medications?
Which of the following is NOT a side effect associated with Aspirin use?
Which of the following is NOT a major side effect associated with taking potent steroids?
What is the irreversible presentation of thiamine deficiency associated with chronic alcoholism?
Which drug is primarily associated with crystalline retinopathy and whorl keratopathy among ocular side effects?
What is the MOA for the antifungal Griseofulvin?
Which category of antibiotics is most commonly associated with tendon-related side effects?
Which of the following is NOT a first-generation H1 blocker?
Which of the following is NOT a known side effect associated with Phenelzine use?
Sulfa medications primarily target which enzyme in the folate synthesis pathway?
Which of the following is NOT an example of a Macrolide?
Which of the following is NOT a well known ocular side effect of TCAs such as amitriptyline?
Which of the following is an SSRI medication?
Lindane (Kwell) is primarily used to treat which conditions?
In the PTC mnemonic, what does the letter C stand for?
Which of the following medications is known to cause Reye's syndrome in young children?
Which of the following is a main side effect of Rifampin?
NAION has been reported as a potential ocular complication of which antiarrhythmic medication?
Which antifungal medication inhibits ergosterol by binding to it and forming pores rather than inhibiting ergosterol synthesis?
Which 2nd generation H1 blocker can cause abnormal EOM contractions known as oculogyric crisis?
Which medication is known to cause bone marrow suppression as a side effect?
Nifedipine, Verapamil, and Diltiazem are all considered which type of hypertensive medication?
Which topical antibiotic is a three-drug combination including Bacitracin, Polymyxin B, and Neomycin?
Which of the following medications does NOT inhibit dihydrofolate reductase as its main MOA?
Which tetracycline is considered the most toxic?
Which type of cataract is most classically associated with long-term systemic steroid use?
What is the acute reversible presentation of thiamine deficiency due to chronic alcoholism?
Which effect does Spironolactone have that Triamterene does NOT have?
The most common side effect of Metformin is?
Which enzyme do Trimethoprim/Pyrimethamine drugs target?
Besifloxacin, Moxifloxacin, and Gatifloxacin are examples of which generation of fluoroquinolones?
Which of the following is NOT a major topical use for fluoroquinolones in ophthalmology?
Which of the following is NOT an ocular side effect associated with long term use of systemic steroids?
Warfarin (Coumadin) primarily functions by inhibiting which Vitamin?
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) primarily targets which nephron segment?
Which medication is an NDRI prescribed to treat depression and smoking cessation?
Promethazine is a 1st generation H1 blocker antihistamine. Which option lists a 1st generation H1 blocker?
Corticosteroids exert anti-inflammatory effects primarily by which mechanism?
All topical ophthalmic fluoroquinolones are approved for patients 1 year of age and older EXCEPT which drug?
Which of the following antibiotics are considered bactericidal agents?
Which topical anti-herpes agent is known to use the thimerosal preservative?
Ceftriaxone is considered which generation of cephalosporin?
Which of the following medications are NOT recommended for MRSA infections?
Phenothiazines are antipsychotic medications that can cause ocular pigmentation effects. Which antihistamine is also most likely to cause pigmentation effects?
Which of the following types of medications would you least expect to have adrenergic agonist properties?
Which medication is used to treat prolactin-secreting pituitary adenomas?
Generally speaking, which of the following types of medications does NOT have anti cholinergic properties?
Which of the following is a first-generation H1 blocker?
Which statement correctly pairs a drug with its primary enzymatic target in folate synthesis?
Which medication is commonly used for ADHD and acts by increasing norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain?
True or false: Penicillins are generally safe for children and pregnant patients.
Which Anti-Herpes medication is administered via IV and primarily used in resistant herpes infections?
What is the primary mechanism of action of Ethambutol?
Tamiflu is the brand name for which drug?
What is the main mechanism of action for all anti-herpes medications?
Foscarnet is administered by which route?
Which of the following is NOT an expected side effect associated with Clonidine (Catapres)?
What is the only FDA approved topical antifungal agent?
What is the typical dosing per day for topical Trifluridine (Viroptic)?
Which of the following is NOT an SSRI?
Which generation of H1 blocker antihistamines has greater CNS penetration and more CNS side effects?
Which two classes of antibiotics contain beta-lactam rings?
Which of the following antifungal medications do NOT involve ergosterol as their main MOA?
Which tetracycline is known to cause a blue sclera?
Which of the following is NOT a systemic side effect associated with long term use of systemic steroids?
Which of the following is NOT an opiate analgesic?
Which Anti Herpes Agent contains the thimerosal preservative?
Which fluoroquinolone would you expect to have the best gram negative coverage?
Which penicillin is penicillinase resistant?
Which of the following is NOT one of the main receptors that Opiate Analgesics target?
Which of the following is a fourth generation fluoroquinolone?
Which medication is NOT an ACE inhibitor?
Neosporin is composed of which three antibiotics?
Which medication is used topically for ocular surface disease and is also associated with Reversible Posterior Leukoencephalopathy Syndrome (RPLS)?
Which class does Venlafaxine belong to?
Which of the following ocular adverse effects is commonly associated with Chloroquine therapy?
Aminoglycosides belong to which antibiotic class?
What is the main MOA of Amiodarone?
Which statement best describes the tendinopathy risk associated with fluoroquinolones?
Which tuberculosis medication is known to occasionally cause bilateral retrobulbar optic neuritis?
What is the primary route of administration for Cephalexin?
Which anticonvulsant has ocular side effects of nystagmus, diplopia, and EOM palsies?
What is the main MOA of Clonidine (Catapres)?
Which Estrogen Antagonist medication is used to treat breast cancer and is known to cause crystalline retinopathy as well as whorl keratopathy?
Which medication is not an acid-suppressing agent?
Anterior subcapsular lens deposits are associated with which drug?
Which statement about Phenelzine is true?
There are four major antidepressant classes. These medications primarily achieve their action by increasing which neurotransmitter in the CNS?
Do short acting beta 2 agonists increase or decrease intraocular pressure?
Amoxicillin + Clavulonic acid equals which antibiotic?
Chronic alcoholism can lead to thiamine deficiency which is also known as vitamin __ deficiency.
What is the most serious side effect associated with Acetaminophen use?
Which of the following is a decongestant that acts as a nonspecific alpha and beta adrenergic agonist?
Which drug is an ACE inhibitor?
Which topical ophthalmic fluoroquinolone is NOT approved for use in patients 1 year and older?
Among tetracyclines, which side effect is most clearly associated with bone development retardation?
True or False? Tetracyclines are safe for pregnancy and children.
What is the main MOA of statin cholesterol medications?
Floppy iris syndrome is a potential complication associated with which class of medications used for BPH?
Which of the following is NOT one of the main side effects associated with Aminoglycosides?
ARBs are often prescribed when patients cannot tolerate which side effect commonly associated with ACE inhibitors?
All diuretics are known to cause which ocular side effect?
Which of the following is NOT a selective Beta-1 blocker?
Betaxolol is best described as which type of blocker?
Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant?
Dopamine agonists used for Parkinson's disease and ADHD act most similarly to which category of medications?
Which class includes drugs that inhibit the synthesis of folate in bacteria?
What is the most common ocular side effect associated with Chloroquine?
Which antibiotic class inhibits the 50S ribosomal subunit?
Compared with second-generation H1 blockers, first-generation H1 blockers have greater CNS penetration and more CNS side effects.
Which tetracycline antibiotic is NOT contraindicated in a patient with kidney failure?
Which of the following systemic medications is considered an Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist?
Which of the following is NOT one of the well known side effects of Penicillins?
Sumatriptan has been associated with which ocular event?
Which medication is used to treat Hepatitis C by inhibiting RNA polymerase?
Which class does Fluoxetine belong to?
______ is a CNS AcHE inhibitor that is used to treat Alzheimer's disease by being an indirect cholinergic agonist.
Which class is considered first-line treatment for depression?
What are the only 2 medications on the NBEO matrix that bind irreversibly?
Which neurotransmitter is least likely to be targeted by antidepressant medications?
Amphotericin B is best described as which class of antifungal?
Which pediatric condition is associated with aspirin use?
Which of the following is a known side effect of methotrexate?
Which medication used to treat congestive heart failure is associated with blue/yellow color vision defects?
Which is NOT an adverse effect of Sumatriptan (Imitrex)?
Which statement best describes aspirin's effect on COX enzymes?
Which statement accurately describes a mechanism of action of Chloroquine?
Which calcium channel blocker has the least risk of enhancing the effects of topical timolol and inducing bradycardia or heart failure?
Polysporin contains which two antibiotics?
Brand name for Phenelzine?
Which of the following is a second generation H1 blocker?
Which statement is true about Zidovudine?
Levothyroxine is a replacement therapy for which hormone?
What is the typical dosing per day for topical Ganciclovir (Zirgan)?
What is the primary mechanism of action of Zidovudine?
What is the most common side effect associated with IV amphotericin B use?
Which diabetic medication would you least associate with an adverse effect of hypoglycemia?
Tobrodex is a combination of which two drugs?
Cyanopsia refers to what kind of vision change?
Which tuberculosis medication has the most severe ocular side effects?
Which ocular side effect would NOT be expected with Amiodarone?
What is the main example of a third generation fluoroquinolone?
MAOI increases which neurotransmitters in the CNS?
In the PTC mnemonic for drug-induced Pseudotumor Cerebri, what does the letter P represent?
Which antibiotic is a macrolide?
Glyburide belongs to which drug class?
Which Macrolide is commonly used as an alternative to doxycycline for treating adult chlamydial conjunctivitis?
Which statement is NOT part of the Ribavirin ocular side effects mnemonic?
Clonidine reduces sympathetic activity by activating which receptor?
Timolol is NOT a selective Beta-1 blocker. Which option correctly describes this?
Spironolactone blocks the action of which main hormone involved in blood pressure?
Which of the following diuretics is a loop diuretic?
Which of the following is a common ocular immunosuppressant used topically and is also commonly associated with RPLS?
Which cephalosporin would have the best gram positive and gram negative coverage?
Which ocular condition has been associated with PDE-5 inhibitors?
Oral antivirals are primarily known to have which potential side effect?
Which medication is commonly used to treat Acne rosacea?
Bacitracin + Polymyxin B + Neomycin yields which antibiotic?
Which antibiotic is often used prophylactically to treat suspected ophthalmia neonatorum due to Chlamydia or Gonorrhea?
Which term describes the initial sign of Bull's eye maculopathy?
Long-term systemic steroid use is commonly linked to which metabolic change?
Which statement about the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is true?
Which of the following is NOT a known side effect associated with Tramadol (Ultram)?
Which of the following medications is NOT contraindicated in patients with a history of coronary artery disease or stroke?
Which of the following antibiotics are considered bacteriostatic?
Which agent among the following is NOT used to treat Herpes infections?
Whorl keratopathy is a documented adverse ocular effect of which medication?
Aminoglycosides generally have better coverage against which type of bacteria?
Which of the following is NOT an example of an Aminoglycoside?
What is the main MOA of Corticosteroids?
Which thyroid medication is known to cause papillary thyroid carcinoma in children?
Which of the following is NOT one of the side effects associated with Zidovudine?
Which anticonvulsant is known to cause acute angle-closure glaucoma?
What is the main MOA of Sildenafil (Viagra) and Vardenafil (Levitra)?
Which medication is a lipid-lowering agent commonly used to treat hyperlipidemia?
Which of the following medications is NOT known to cause Oculogyric crisis?
Which of the following is NOT considered an antidepressant?
For eyelid infections or preseptal cellulitis, which cephalosporin would you most likely use?
What is the main clinical indication for prescribing Oral Clarithromycin?
Which is NOT a typical side effect associated with sulfa medications?
Which of the following medications is NOT considered safe for a pregnant patient?
What is the most severe adverse effect associated with Chloramphenicol use?
Tobradex is a combination of which two drugs?
In patients receiving potent steroids, which viral infection is most commonly of concern?
Which of the following medications you would expect to increase aqueous humor production?
Which of the following is NOT considered an H2 blocker?
Spironolactone antagonizes the action of which hormone?
Which medication is a Proton Pump Inhibitor?
Which of the following is true about Amphotericin B?
What do H2 blocker medications primarily treat?
What are two examples of second generation fluoroquinolones?
What is the main MOA of Levothyroxine (Synthroid)?
Which GI medication forms a protective paste along the stomach lining?
What is the primary mechanism of action of Isoniazid?
Which of the following is a known side effect of Zidovudine?
What is the most common ocular side effect associated with Ribavirin?
Which statement about tetracycline safety in pregnancy and children is accurate?
Erythromycin is an example of which class?
Which diuretic can cause acute secondary angle closure similar to Topamax?
Atenolol is best described as which type of receptor blocker?
Metoprolol is best described as which type of receptor blocker?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with isotretinoin use?
Chlorpromazine and Thioridazine belong to which drug class?
Which medication is considered a synthetic prostaglandin E1 that is used to prevent NSAID-induced stomach ulcers?
Which generation of fluoroquinolone antibiotics has the broadest spectrum of coverage?
Which of the following is NOT considered an NSAID?
Discoloration of body fluids is a known effect of which tuberculosis drug?
Which classification of antibiotics primarily targets peptidoglycan in the bacterial cell wall?
Which class targets the 50S ribosomal subunit?
Thiamine deficiency is typically associated with which acute neurological condition?
What is the main MOA of BPH medications such as Prazosin, Terazosin, and Tamsulosin?
Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of tetracyclines?
Metronidazole (MetroGel) is primarily used to treat ___________.
Antidepressants function most similarly to which class of autonomic drugs?
Which of the following is NOT a side effect associated with Spironolactone?
What is the mechanism of action of Aspirin?
Which diuretic is potassium-sparing and commonly used for edema in heart failure?
Digoxin is known to cause which type of color defects?
Zidovudine is classified as which type of antiviral agent?
Which of the following is a 2nd generation H1 blocker antihistamine that is Loratadine?
Levofloxacin is the main example of which generation of fluoroquinolones?
Which statement accurately describes the primary mechanism of action of metformin?
Lindane (Kwell) is primarily used to treat which conditions?
Chlorpromazine is an example of which type of drug?
Which topical Anti-herpes agent has better bioavailability and efficacy?
Which Penicillin is NOT penicillinase resistant?
The initial sign of Bull's eye maculopathy while taking Chloroquine is RPE _____________ within the macula.
Which of the following is a dopamine receptor antagonist?
Which Dopamine agonist is most commonly used to treat prolactin-secreting pituitary adenomas?
Which of the following is NOT an example of a direct acting cholinergic agonist?
Between Trifluridine and Ganciclovir, which topical anti-herpes agent has better bioavailability and efficacy?
Which of the following is NOT an example of a Sulfonylurea?
Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline and imipramine primarily function by inhibiting the reuptake of which two main neurotransmitters?
Which of the following medications can be prescribed topically q.i.d. for filamentary keratitis, dry eye syndromes, and corneal burns?
Prazosin, Terazosin, and Tamsulosin are primarily what type of drug mechanism?
Chlorpheniramine is best categorized as which type of drug?
Erythromycin is a member of which antibiotic class?
What is the ONLY Long acting Beta 2 agonist on the NBEO outline that is used for maintenance of COPD and asthma?
Which antibiotic among the following is a third-generation cephalosporin?
Ciprofloxacin is a type of which antibiotic class?
Which is NOT a side effect associated with Isotretinoin use?
Which aminoglycoside is less toxic to the eye?
First generation H1 blockers have anticholinergic properties and are used to treat allergies. Which of the following is one of the four main first-generation H1 blockers?

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